I believe there is a confound here that is being ignored. I do not think that they can claim that lower neurotransmitter response to pleasurable food is the CAUSE of overeating and obesity. How do we know that the lower response was not due to overeating? I mean, someone who is lean more than likely does not have chocolate milkshakes very often, so drinking one would constitute a treat. However, someone who is overweight or obese might have milkshakes or sweets in general on a regular basis, in which case it is not that much of a treat and would therefore lead to less of a pleasure response. It is the basic concept of tolerance. Those who are addicted to cocaine or heroine cause their neurotransmitter stores to be depleted, which leads to the release of fewer and fewer neurotransmitters when taking the drug. This would show up as lower activity on an fMRI scan, but one would never argue that this lower activity is the CAUSE of their drug addiction. I think this is more an example of tolerance than a cause of obesity.









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